In 1992, the University of Chicago reported that on average, men have 74% more opposite-gender sex partners than women.
Wait, what?
Oh yeah, we're supposed to prove that's not possible. But seriously, how could the University of Chicago have missed that?
The university made the wrong conclusion from their "research." Instead of concluding that men have more sexual partners than women, they should have concluded that men are more open about their lays. Well, some are. But that's why we're dealing with averages.
Comments
I have no idea what you mean
I have no idea what you mean by that last line
It means that for every woman
It means that for every woman who had sex with a man, a man had sex with a woman. Hence you can consider the graph of intimate contact as a bipartite graph, for which we proved that the average "contacts" (instances of intimacy) per "node" (person) is proportional to the ratio between the population of males and females who are involved.